Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Lisbeth S. Fried" <lizfried AT umich.edu>]

Dear All,
I have been trying to figure out why people think
there is a Trito Isaiah. One reason they say is that
the poems of Trito are weak and pallid immitations of those
of Deutero. I ask tho if the poems were rearranged and those of
Trito placed earlier in the book than those of Deutero, would they
be saying the same thing, or would they say that those of Deutero are
weak and pale immitations of those of Deutero?
I see the similarities in language, but how can people be so sure which
came first? And how can people be so sure it's not the same author?
People say that Trito-isaiah is a "spiritualization" of Deutero, whereas
Deutero speaks of an actual salvation by a trip home through the desert,
Trito Isaiah speaks of a figurative salvation. I don't see how 60 is more
spiritualized or any different at all from 49. I don't get it. If 60
preceded 49,
would these exegetes have reversed themselves??? Is there anything
intrinsic in the writing? I haven't been able to get hold of Duhm, maybe he
has all the answers. It seems to me tho that the reference to the sabbath
in Isaiah 56 caused people to place these passages to the time of Nehemiah,
and then, following Wellhausen, to view the writer and his poetry as
inferior.
Any help is appreciated.
Liz

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