Biblical Hebrew Forum

[ian goldsmith <iangoldsmith1969 AT yahoo.co.uk>]

Bearpecs@ kindly comments that a good translation of
Jeremiah 8v8b is: "assuredly, for naught has the pen
laboured, for naught the scribes." 
This contains one word not included in the Hebrew
'naught' and translates 'does'(works) as 'labours',
which is a different verb.

Surely it would appear that HH. has a better literal
translation in: "Surely for (the) falsehood works the
false stylus of the scribes". For in the 85 or so
occurrences of 'shqr' in the OT the majority seem to
imply falsehood or lying. Also as Ben C. pointed out
Jeremiah 8v10b uses the same verb where 'vainly' may
apply, but the chastisement of the perpertators seems
hard for a mere error, falsehood seems to fit better.
The question still remains however. Are the scribes
writing the Law in falsely? Is it in error, or is it
even the Torah that is being refered to?
Comments?



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