Biblical Hebrew Forum

["David Stabnow" <dstabno AT lifeway.com>]

On 5/12 at 8:11 pm Don A. Elbourne Jr. wrote:

<< Who named Ichabod in 1 Sam. 4:19-22? Most interpret the text to mean the
mother gave the child his name before she died. But the text does not seem
to be clear. The first word of verse 21, "she called," could refer either
to the mother or the woman standing beside her. Since the last two verbs of
the previous verse indicates that the mother is incoherent and
unresponsive, it would seem more likely that the woman standing beside her
did the naming. Is this possible? What do you think? >>

In verse 20 she was not "incoherent."  It only says that she did not answer
and she didn't care or didn't pay attention (see 2 Sam 18:3; Isa 42:25; Job
7:17; see KB sub _LB_ "heart" #7; and Jenni-Westermann sub _LB_ #3e, and
sub _NTN_ #3c).  The women tried to encourage her, but she refused to be
encouraged.

Naming a child was often the prerogative of the mother in the OT (Gen 4:25;
19:37; 29:32; 30:8ff; 35:18; 38:4; Exod 2:10; Judg 13:24; 1 Sam 1:20; 2 Sam
12:24 Qere; 1 Chr 4:17; Exceptions: Gen 4:26; 5:3, 29; 16:15; 21:3; 25:26;
38:3, 29; 41:51; Exod 2:22; Judg 6:23; 2 Sam 12:24 Kethiv; Job 42:14; 1 Chr
7:23).  Had this prerogative been usurped it probably would have been made
explicit (Ruth 4:17), not ambiguous, as you have perceived this to be.

Also, it says "she" called him Ichabod because the glory had departed from
Israel, and because of "her" father-in-law and "her" husband.  To whom
could the latter two pronouns refer but the mother?  And if the latter
pronouns refer to the mother, it is likely that the first does as well.

This passage raises another question.  Did she say "the glory has departed
from Israel" twice, once in v. 21 and once in v. 22?  This seems unlikely.
Or should we translate v. 21, "She named him Ichabod, intending thereby to
communicate that the glory had departed from Israel."  If this is true, it
would inform our translation of other naming formulae with *lemor* (Gen
5:29; 30:24; Judg 6:23).  The name itself is intended to communicate the
content of what follows *lemor*; the one giving the name speaks only the
name, not the intention of the meaning.

Dave Stabnow