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  • From: "David Stabnow" <dstabno AT lifeway.com>
  • To: b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu
  • Subject: 1 Sam 15:2
  • Date: Fri, 23 Mar 2001 14:14:21 -0600


Why do LXX and most English versions treat the perfect _PQDTY_ as a future
intention?

Driver in his notes on Samuel says this is an "unusual" (in prose) case of
the perfect "expressing determination," and cites _NQH_ in Judges 15:3. I
agree that future is the only possible sense in Judges.

However, in 1 Sam 15:2 the clause with the perfect is followed by _(TH_
"now." The typical structure of paragraphs with _(TH_ is an explication of
the historical situation, followed by _W(TH_ and a determination of what
the speaker intends the future should or will be (expressed as imperatives
and imperfects; see 1 Sam 12:10). Therefore I would expect _PQDTY_ to
express the historical situation (I have witnessed), not the
"determination" (I will avenge).

Any thoughts?

Dave Stabnow




  • 1 Sam 15:2, David Stabnow, 03/23/2001

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