Biblical Hebrew Forum

["David Stabnow" <dstabno AT lifeway.com>]

Why do LXX and most English versions treat the perfect _PQDTY_ as a future
intention?

Driver in his notes on Samuel says this is an "unusual" (in prose) case of
the perfect "expressing determination," and cites _NQH_ in Judges 15:3.  I
agree that future is the only possible sense in Judges.

However, in 1 Sam 15:2 the clause with the perfect is followed by _(TH_
"now."  The typical structure of paragraphs with _(TH_ is an explication of
the historical situation, followed by _W(TH_ and a determination of what
the speaker intends the future should or will be (expressed as imperatives
and imperfects; see 1 Sam 12:10).  Therefore I would expect _PQDTY_ to
express the historical situation (I have witnessed), not the
"determination" (I will avenge).

Any thoughts?

Dave Stabnow