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Subject: Biblical Hebrew Forum
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- From: Dan Wagner <Dan.Wagner AT datastream.net>
- To: Biblical Hebrew <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
- Subject: RE: Jer 51:1 - Athbash
- Date: Thu, 28 Dec 2000 18:50:53 -0500
> -----Original Message-----
> From: Charles David Isbell [mailto:cisbell AT home.com]
> Sent: Thursday, December 28, 2000 17:55
> To: Dan Wagner; Biblical Hebrew
> Subject: Re: Jer 51:1 - Athbash
>
>
> Brian,
>
> I wrote a bit about this phenomenon in the Sassanian era Aramaic magic
> bowls. "Some Cryptograms in the Aramaic Magic Bowls," Journal of Near
> Eastern Studies 33 (1974):4, 405-407.
>
> I have no answer as to why 'Athbash is used only sometimes in
> the biblical
> text. Could it be that some later editor of the text knew
> the power of
> magic in common belief, and "threw in" a magical spelling for
> extra effect!
If so, then in Jer. 25:25 why is it used [assuming _ZMRY_ emended to _WMKY_
= _(YLM_] as a repeated reference to Elam which might indicate a double-dose
of punishment for its king? Also, why use it exclusively for Elam (and
Sheshak, of course)? The focus might be judgment upon the king of
Sheshak/Babel who will drink after all those other miscellaneous kings (v.
26), but Elam is not significant in that misc. list.
I don't know the answer, but even apart from the evidence of this possible
example, it doesn't satisfy me.
Dan Wagner
>
> Shalom,
> Charles
-
Jer 51:1 - Athbash,
Brian Tucker, 12/28/2000
- <Possible follow-up(s)>
- RE: Jer 51:1 - Athbash, Dan Wagner, 12/28/2000
- Re: Jer 51:1 - Athbash, Charles David Isbell, 12/28/2000
- RE: Jer 51:1 - Athbash, Dan Wagner, 12/28/2000
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