Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Fernando Arias" <fernando.arias AT lycos.com>]

Dear Members,
I have some questions related to 1 King 7:14:
1)Why does the Hebrew words translated as "widow's son" have the word 
"ishsha"(woman)? 
2)Why doesn't the original just use the word "almanah" (widow) alone without 
the word "ishsha"? 
3)Is there any other example in the Bible of such use of both words, "ishsha" 
and "almanah"? 
Thanks in advance for your answers,
Fernando.


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Subject: Re: 1 King 7:14
Date: Thu, 26 Oct 2000 20:47:40 -0400
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hi Fernando,

the following contain _ishah 'almanah_ :
2 Sam. 14:5
1 Ki. 7:14
1 Ki. 11:26
1 Ki. 17:9
1 Ki. 17:10
often translated "widow woman"

we might consider the "fuller" expression (i.e. it is
"fuller" than simple _'almanah_) to be pragmatically marked,
something like an adjectival clause might be-- "...a woman
who is a widow."  tautology or pleonasm is often functional.
as a confirmation of the idea you might check especially 2
Sam 14:5 in which the speaker adds yet another tautology:
_'ishah 'almanah 'ani wayyamat 'ishi_  "I am a widow woman
and my husband died."  i think the woman's troubled
emotional state is relected linguistically by the tautology.
i think many of us wax wordy when we're troubled.

in the case about which you ask, perhaps we are to
understand that it was quite remarkable that a widow's son,
of all unlikely people, had become such a noteable
craftsman.  why else would the detail even be given.  i
think our best first approach is to assume that everything
the writer gives us is purposeful.

shalom,
bryan

you wrote:
> Dear Members,
> I have some questions related to 1 King 7:14:
> 1)Why does the Hebrew words translated as "widow's son"
have the word "ishsha"(woman)?
> 2)Why doesn't the original just use the word "almanah"
(widow) alone without the word "ishsha"?
> 3)Is there any other example in the Bible of such use of
both words, "ishsha" and "almanah"?
> Thanks in advance for your answers,
> Fernando.
>