Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Trevor & Julie Peterson" <spedrson AT thesimpsons.com>]

One principle that may apply is stated in Jouon-Muraoka (and elsewhere I'm
sure):  "In the state of Hebrew as recorded by the Naqdanim, the primary
stress occurs only on the ultima . . . or on the penultima" (15b).  They
don't give any exceptions to this principle (although it could be an
oversight), which may suggest that the vocal shewa readings below are
impossible.  Now that I've said that, my mind is going to keep haunting me
with the nagging thought that I've probably seen antepenultimate stress
before, but there you have it.

Trevor Peterson
Semitics/CUA

> -----Original Message-----
> From: owner-hebraisticum AT mail.uni-mainz.de
> [mailto:owner-hebraisticum AT mail.uni-mainz.de]On Behalf Of M & E Anstey
> Sent: Saturday, October 21, 2000 3:39 PM
> To: Hebraisticum; B-Hebrew
> Subject: Silent or vocal shewa?
>
>
> Hello all,
>
> It is usually stated that a shewa after an accented syllable is
> silent, but
> what of the case of irregularly stressed 3fs qal perfects, such
> as found in
> Gen 19:38, 30:21; Joe 4:13; Mal 1:9, etc which have the accent on
> the first
> syllable? Is
> this
> shewa then silent or vocal, ie yáldah or yáledah, mál'ah or
> mále'ah, háytah

> or háyetah, etc?
> Does this rule about shewa after an
> accented syllable apply in such a case? I can't anything clear about it in
> Gesenius, but it may be in there somewhere.
>
> What are your thoughts?
>
> Regards,
> Matthew Anstey
> Vrije Universiteit, Nederland
>
>
>
>
>




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