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Subject: Biblical Hebrew Forum
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- From: "Peter Kirk" <Peter_Kirk AT sil.org>
- To: "Lee R. Martin" <lmartin AT vol.com>, "Biblical Hebrew" <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
- Subject: Re: Gen 1:1 "When God began to create"?
- Date: Fri, 1 Sep 2000 14:56:22 +0100
OK, point taken.
In Jer 28:1 BERE'SHIYT is clearly a construct followed by a noun. No
argument there. But surely you realise that it is quite possible for the
identical form to be parsed in different ways in different texts, especially
where the contexts are quite different, e.g. in English "read", "let" etc
can be present or past tense depending on context.
Peter Kirk
----- Original Message -----
From: "Lee R. Martin" <lmartin AT vol.com>
To: "Biblical Hebrew" <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Sent: Friday, September 01, 2000 1:57 PM
Subject: Re: Gen 1:1 "When God began to create"?
>
>
> Peter Kirk wrote:
>
> > Dear Lee,
> >
> > You cannot simply jump into the
> > middle of the argument and make an unqualified statement that this is
> > construct (contrary to LXX, Vulgate and most English translations)
without
> > dealing with the counter-arguments raised by myself and others on the
list,
> > and by such well-known scholars as Waltke and Barr.
>
> > But it is just not possible to say dogmatically
> > that one of them must be true and to dismiss another one in the way you
have
> > done here.
> >
>
> Dear Peter,
> Sorry if my short message sounded dogmatic. I am just stating my opinion.
That
> is all. I don't have time to write pages of arguments on this.
> So what about Jer. 28:1?
>
> --
>
> Lee R. Martin
> Pastor, Prospect Church of God, Cleveland, Tennessee
> Instructor in Hebrew and Old Testament
> Church of God Theological Seminary
> http://earth.vol.com/~lmartin/
>
>
>
> ---
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-
Re: Gen 1:1 "When God began to create"?,
Peter Kirk, 09/01/2000
- Re: Gen 1:1 "When God began to create"?, Lee R. Martin, 09/01/2000
-
Message not available
- Re: Gen 1:1 "When God began to create"?, Peter Kirk, 09/01/2000
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