Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Joseph Brian Tucker" <music AT riverviewcog.org>]

Shalom

WO writes, "The prefective does not emphasize the completedness of a 
situation. Earlier researchers commonly erred in characterizing the suffix 
conjugation as indicating completed action, instead of indicating a 
complete situation. Expressed in that erroreous way, the theory that the 
suffix conjugation indicates perfective aspect is open to objection." 
(480)

Christo H.J. van der Merwe writes, "Perfect refers to the SEMANTIC function 
of a VERB formm, viz. a completed action, that normally expresses 
factualities and which can be translated with the past tense." (362)

1. Is WO correct? Or is van der Merwe correct?

2. What is the difference between a completed action and a complete 
situation?

3. Any other guidance would be appreicated.

Help!
Brian Tucker
Riverview, MI
music AT riverviewcog.org