Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Jason Hare <parousia_occ AT yahoo.com>]

I am curious about the use of the Perfect and the
Imperfect in the first Psalm.  It is interesting (I
noted it in class today) that when something is
referring to the wicked or bad things in this chapter
(indeed, not that it is consistent in the HB) it is
written with an imperfect verse.  However, if
something is speaking of the righteous, it is in the
imperfect.  Is there something to this?  (There is one
seeming disagreement with this: when it talks of the
wicked being being blown away like the chaff it is
Imperfect.  However, it must be noted that when the
advice of the wicked is bad, their destruction is
GOOD.  So this, too, fits the idea.)

What do you think of this??

Jason Hare
Ozark Christian College
parousia_occ AT yahoo.com

__________________________________________________
Do You Yahoo!?
Send online invitations with Yahoo! Invites.
http://invites.yahoo.com