Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Harold R. Holmyard III" <hholmyard AT ont.com>]

Dear Joseph,
     You write about the verbal construction in Exod 21:28:

SFQOL YISSF"L -Ex 21:28a

"Most translations go with 'it shall be stoned.' Is this the correct
understanding or is the combination 'infinitive absolute + prefix' convey
the idea of 'it is liable to be stoned' or 'it may be stoned?' Which makes
the punishment more open to application in each case. Does this apply to
Lev. 20:10 'he shall be put to death' taken to mean 'he is liable to
execution?' Does this construction and its understanding only apply to
legal texts?"

I have never seen this way of handling the infinitive absolute. I was
taught to read the phrase in question as "It shall surely be stoned." The
infinitive absolute adds emphasis or certitude. Gesenius' Hebrew Grammar,
sec. 113n, notes that before the verb the infinitve absolute strengthens
the verbal idea "to emphasize in this way either the certainty (especially
in the case of threats) or the forcibleness and completeness of an
occurrence."

                                                Yours,
                                                Harold Holmyard