Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Banyai Michael" <banyai AT t-online.de>]

George Athas wrote:

> Why can't the 'king of Babylon' be Merodach-baladan?

There are at least a couple of problems in the identification with 
Merodach-Baladan II.
First one would be, he is the ally of Juda against Assyria, so one cannot 
expect such harsh tones against him in a prophecy of Isaiah.

Second one is the reference in Isaiah 14,17 to his crime, not having 
allowed the exiled to return. From the writers perspective could this exile 
be but the Samarían nobility, so one must suppose, the king in cause is 
Sargon II.

Third one is the reference in Isaiah 14,8 "even the Cyprus-trees and the 
Lebanon
cedars are spotting on you: since you are strechted to the earth nobody 
else comes here to cut us down.".

There is corresponding to this an explicite reference to the king of Assur 
in Isaiah 10,33 and 10,28:
"Assur comes from Rimon... The mighty trees are cut down... the Libanon 
(wood) falls by the hand of a mighty one."

An explanation, why Isaiah 14 preferrs to call Sargon king of Babel, can 
remain but speculative. I can provide at least one, but so anybody else 
too.

Best regards,

Banyai Michael