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  • From: Niels Peter Lemche <npl AT teol.ku.dk>
  • To: "'b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu'" <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: On using the term "Palestine"
  • Date: Sun, 27 Feb 2000 14:40:14 +0100




> Herodotus uses it quite frequently (i collected the places in my review of
> Whitelam, Inventing..., in SJOT some years ago, and it was republished in
> Grabbe's first volume of the European seminar in Historical Methodology 1
> (JSOT Sup 245), Sheffield, SAP 1997, pp. 123-155, cf. pp. 131-2. The
> places are Herodotus I 105; II 104. 106; III 5. 91; IV 39; VII 89. It is
> interesting that Herodotus reckons Palestine to be part of Syria. In one
> place he writes 'This part of Syria, together with the country which
> extends soutwards to Egypt, is all known as Palestine'.
>
> The Assyrians also used the term (check ANET) and it is not absolutely
> clear that they only use it about the Philistine cities.
>
> NPL
>
>
> -----Original Message-----
> From: George Athas [SMTP:gathas AT mail.usyd.edu.au]
> Sent: Sunday, 27 February, 2000 12:59
> To: Biblical Hebrew
> Subject: On using the term "Palestine"
>
> > > I think it is only fair to accept the reality that in the 20th
> century, well
> > > before the founding of the State of Israel in 1948, the world at
> large used
> > > the term "Palestine" throughout to refer to the territory in question.
> So I
> > > see no valid reason for offense at this use of the term.
> >
> > I also have no problem with the term "Palestine" that was in use for
> this area
> > from the 2nd to the 20th century.
>
> Herodotus also used it (eg, 1:105). It is a very ancient term which has
> only taken on a
> different political slant in the late 20th century. I do not find it
> offensive or
> politically loaded, though I can see how others might. Other suggestions:
>
> - Cisjordan & Transjordan
> - Southern Levant
>
> George Athas
> Dept of Semitic Studies,
> University of Sydney
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