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Subject: Biblical Hebrew Forum
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- From: Kimmo Huovila <kimmo.huovila AT helsinki.fi>
- To: b-hebrew <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
- Subject: Opposites - retry
- Date: Tue, 01 Feb 2000 11:06:15 +0200
Since I did not get any replies, I try again.
Kimmo
Kimmo Huovila wrote:
>
> Jouon-Muraoka ยง160 k says "Opposite and conflicting notions are less
> sharply distinguished than in our languages. Thus &FN") to hate can be
> used where we would say not to love..."
>
> Is this rule general in its applicability, or is it very restricted
> lexically? Does the rule show some kind of asymmetry (for example not
> loving could be expressed with a word whose basic meaning is to hate,
> but not hating could not be expressed with a word for loving)?
- Opposites - retry, Kimmo Huovila, 02/01/2000
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