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  • From: Todd Young <tbbyoung AT flash.net>
  • To: Biblical Hebrew <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: Hebrew Parsing
  • Date: Tue, 04 Jan 2000 18:06:22 -0600


I was having a discussion with a Hebrew professor the other day. The
question revolved around the first word of Jeremiah 1:4. Can one
legitimately parse it as an "imperfect third masculine singular" or must
it be parsed as a waw consecutive Hebrew preterate?

Todd Young




  • Hebrew Parsing, Todd Young, 01/04/2000

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