Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Ian Hutchesson <mc2499 AT mclink.it>]

>>(Adar was considered a non-Hebrew
>>(Syrian) word by the writer -- or epitomizer -- of 2Maccabees, 15:36.)
>
>This is an unwarrented inference from the text.  The text never says
>that Adar is non-Hebrew, only that it is the name in Aramaic (SURIAKHi).
>In order to draw your inference, you must first establish the linguistic
>compentence of the author of 2 Macc (e.g., did he know the difference
>between Aramaic and Hebrew?).

Dear Stephen,

I think you'd have to establish why the writer uses "Syrian" rather than
"Hebrew" which would be the expected term, even if he didn't know the
difference between Hebrew and Aramaic. The fact that he used "Syrian" here
when he doesn't seem to be using the term "Hebrew" indescriminately in
other places, requires one to show that the writer didn't intend "Syrian"
instead of "Hebrew".


Cheers,


Ian