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b-hebrew - Re[6]: [LONG MESSAGE!] Can Hebrew "tense" be relative to con

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  • From: Alviero Niccacci <sbfnet AT netvision.net.il>
  • To: peter_kirk AT sil.org
  • Cc: <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: Re[6]: [LONG MESSAGE!] Can Hebrew "tense" be relative to con
  • Date: Thu, 14 Oct 1999 08:12:48 +0200


On 13/10/99 (Re[6]: [LONG MESSAGE!] Can Hebrew "tense" be relative) Peter Kirk wrote:


Dear Prof Niccacci,

Many thanks for your clear and helpful explanation, and your more
practical approach. I think that some of the difficulties people have
with your approach is with different definitions of e.g. "modal". I
hope others will not allow this to distract them from careful
attention to your work.


Dear Peter Kirk,

Thanks. I appreciate your approach. I think we are rather close.
Yes, much of the problem is terminology. It is so difficult to understand each other.
Peace and all good.

Alviero Niccacci






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