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  • From: peter_kirk AT sil.org
  • To: <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: Re[2]: Telic YIQTOLs WITH past meaning
  • Date: Fri, 01 Oct 1999 00:53:20 -0400


Dear Rolf,

I feel bad about answering this without reading it all. But you seem
to have ignored the fact that +EREM and B:+EREM are regularly followed
by YIQTOL. See GKC 107c, 152r. I guess this is because the idea of
"before" carries futurity and/or modality. That is to say, the event
time of the subordinate clause is after the event time of the main
clause. I have a feeling that in Hebrew the time of a subordinate
clause is regularly judged in relation to that of the main clause
rather than directly related to the overall deictic point. Thus in the
same way QATAL is regularly used in subordinate clauses introduced
with KIY even where the main clause is future and/or modal. Have I got
that right? If so, I really think we don't need to go into any of your
other theories to explain Jer 47:1.

Peter Kirk


______________________________ Reply Separator
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Subject: Re: Telic YIQTOLs WITH past meaning
Author: <furuli AT online.no> at Internet
Date: 30/09/1999 08:20

<snip>

The RSV translates Jer. 47:1 this way, "The word of the LORD that came to
Jeremiah the prophet concerning the Philistines, before Pharaoh *smote*
Gaza. "...

<snip>





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