Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Henry Churchyard <churchyh AT ccwf.cc.utexas.edu>]

> Subject: Phonology
> From: "Matthew Anstey" <manstey AT portal.ca>
> Date: Thu, 19 Aug 1999 12:07:29 -0700

> With your phonological knowledge, maybe you can explain more
> satisfactorily the strange phenomonen of the definite article
> supposedly with the 3fs qatal (and a few other) forms, as in Ruth
> 1.22.  It is dying to be read as a participle according to syntax,
> but the accent is wrong. What do you think?

A traditional analysis would say this is an example of the article
with "relative force", or would cast in doubt the correctness of the
accent placement (see Gesenius-Kautzsch-Cowley p. 447).  I don't know
that phonology really has any special additional explanation to offer
here (hashshAbha).

--
Henry Churchyard   churchyh AT ccwf.cc.utexas.edu   http://www.crossmyt.com/hc/