Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Ian Hutchesson <mc2499 AT mclink.it>]

At 14.15 19/05/99 -0400, Peter wrote:
>I'm not sure who wrote the following (quoted by Randall Buth) - have I 
>missed a posting? But what is this writer's evidence for these 
>"obvious" statements, and in particular that 'Aramaic was the language 
>of the "common folk"'? That is (in part) what the argument is about, 
>and it cannot be solved simply by saying "it is obvious".

Actually, neither am I (sure). I couldn't find an original "targums: needed?"

>>It seems obvious to me that Hebrew was spoken by a limited number of urban 
>>dwellers and elitist religionists while Aramaic was the language of the 
>>"common folk" which has already been proposed by Mr Hutchessen.
><snip>

One thing is for sure though, the writer hasn't represented my
"proposition" faithfully. <grin>


Ian