Biblical Hebrew Forum

[peter_kirk AT sil.org]

I'm not sure who wrote the following (quoted by Randall Buth) - have I 
missed a posting? But what is this writer's evidence for these 
"obvious" statements, and in particular that 'Aramaic was the language 
of the "common folk"'? That is (in part) what the argument is about, 
and it cannot be solved simply by saying "it is obvious".

Peter Kirk


______________________________ Reply Separator 
_________________________________
Subject: Re: targums: needed?
Author:  ButhFam AT compuserve.com at internet
Date:    18/05/1999 13:46


>It seems obvious to me that Hebrew was spoken by a limited number of urban 
dwellers and
>elitist religionists while Aramaic was the language of the "common folk" 
which has
>already been proposed by Mr Hutchessen.
<snip>