Biblical Hebrew Forum

[yochanan bitan <ButhFam AT compuserve.com>]

> But I have yet to see an answer to my question, which I am asking 
> now for the third time: 
> what is there in this form that makes sequence a 
> *necessary* and *inherent* property of it, and why?

i will answer again: it is an inherent property due to its existence, 
an existence in complementary distribution of the semantic TAM with [x-]
qatal. 
languages do not develop/preserve two verb systems in order to mark the
same tense-and/or-aspect-and/or-mood or to 'mark' word order! 
however, languages do have special narrative, mainline and sequential
forms. 

[see buth: The Hebrew Verb in Current Discussions, Journal of
Textlinguistics and Translation, 5:91-105 (SIL, 1992) five pages continue
on from the following section:
     "The Sequential Verb Forms"
"The sequential verb forms have brought the most grief to students and have
not been adequately explained "in grammars.  The reason is three-fold:  1)
a full explanation needs a larger linguistic framework including
"pragmatics and discourse grammar; 2) the forms of the system need to be
explained diachronically, not "synchronically; and 3) the explanations
sometimes given are simply wrong.    . . .]

braxot
randall buth