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  • From: ianyoung AT plato.arts.usyd.edu.au
  • To: Biblical Hebrew <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: Re: Collective Nouns
  • Date: Wed, 18 Nov 1998 17:42:07 +0000


Dear Bryan,
In reply to your question, I definitely think that individual author's choice
is a valid explanation for the book by book variability in the treatment of
`am as singular/plural. In fact I think the point I was really getting at
here was that one cannot make a set of 'rules' that explains the treatment of
`am which work over all Biblical Hebrew.

As you will guess from my original message, however, I think there are other
factors than author's choice alone which explain the treatment of `am as
singular or plural. One must take into account the significant 'authorial'
role of the scribes who transmitted the texts. There is also the question of
chronology eg it has been argued that in Late Biblical Hebrew there was very
little choice but to construe `am as a plural. And certainly, Chronicles and
Ezra-Nehemiah are quite overwhelming in their preference for plural.

Regards,

Ian Young
Semitic Studies
University of Sydney





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