Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Irene Riegner <iriegner AT concentric.net>]

I was just reading in a biblical Aramaic grammar that in the so-called
l"h verbs in biblical Aramaic, which are really l"y / l"a verbs, the "h"
in the 3rd sing. masc ending functions as a mater lectionis indicating
that the previous vowel (a qamatz) is long.  Does the "h" also function
this way in biblical Hebrew?  In the 3rd sing. fem---e.g. bnth = she
built?  How about the "h" in 3rd sing. fem. hollow verbs---e.g. qmh =
she arose?  How about in the imperfective where a segol precedes the
"h".

Thanks for your responses.

irene