Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Paul Zellmer <zellmer AT cag.pworld.net.ph>]

The last few clauses in 1 Kings 11:18 (with the arrival in Egypt) read:

WAY.FBO)W. MIC:RAYIM )EL-P.AR:(OH MELEK:-MIC:RAYIM W)Y.IT.EN-LOW BAYIT
W:LEXEM )FMAR LOW W:)EREC NFTAN LOW

My question is concerns the *'amar lo*.  I'm not quite sure what to do
with it.  It's not wayyiqtol.  Is it a qal qatal verb clause, like it
appears on the surface, meaning, "He said to him"?  That doesn't make a
lot of sense in this context.

The English versions I have here are either ignoring it or making it
part of the concept of provisions, but I haven't found support for that
type of idiom.  What am I missing?

Paul
--
Paul and Dee Zellmer, Jimmy Guingab, Geoffrey Beltran
Ibanag Translation Project
Cabagan, Philippines

zellmer AT faith.edu.ph