Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Jim West <jwest AT Highland.Net>]

At 10:10 PM 8/12/98 -0400, you wrote:
>We have--
>
>Exod. 21
>22   If men strive, and hurt a woman with child, so that her fruit depart 
>from
>her, and yet no mischief follow: he shall be surely punished, according as 
>the
>woman's husband will lay upon him; and he shall pay as the judges determine. 
>
>What does the Hebrew text that is translated as -- depart from her -- 
>actually
>mean?  Does the phrase -- depart from her -- specifically and only refer to a
>miscarriage as some say it does?  Or does the Hebrew text allow that a blow 
>to
>the woman initiates labor and the premature birth of the child which may
>result in the death of the child, but does not have to.  
>
>Roger Hutchinson
>RHutchin AT AOL.com

Fascinating question!  In fact, the tradents of the Samaritan Pentateuch and
some exemplars from the LXX ask the same question- for instead of the MT,
they have 'and it goes forth and she bears it'  !!!  Personally, I think the
passage simply means that the woman is hit in the belly, and the child is
born dead- killed by the blow.  But the Sam. Pent. obviously sees it as your
second possibility above implies.

Best,

Jim

++++++++++++++++++++++++
Jim West, ThD
Adjunct Professor of Bible
Quartz Hill School of Theology

jwest AT highland.net