[b-hebrew] Ezek 3:26
jshepherd53 at gmail.com
Wed Jul 31 23:30:45 EDT 2013
You said: "She didn't disagree with it during the discussion, thereby made
a tacit agreement."
No, you assume too much with this. Again, action and function does not
constitute a meaningful linguistic opposition.
You said: "Irrelevant to whether or not such a distinction is valid. Hence
appeal to popularity."
Again, this was not an appeal to popularity. Rather it was an appeal to
the expertise of trained linguists versus the non-expertise of a
You said: "Taken out of the context that the "calling aside" is not only
physical, but also metaphorically understood, hence a straw man argument on
your part. A second reason a straw man argument is because I make a
distinction between action and function, and you ignore it."
It does not make any difference, in the context of this discussion, whether
the "calling aside" is literal or metaphorical. Your point is that one way
or the other, the thought, or what you call the "action" of calling aside
is present in all the occurrences of *parakaleo*, and that the meaning of
the verb in all its occurrences is calling aside rather than to encourage,
plead, exhort, etc. Again, this is a perfect example of the etymological
or root fallacy. If you think I have minsterpreted you, I think you'll
need to explain better what you mean. Here are your paragraphs again:
"The action in παρακαλειν is to call aside. The function is why there is a
calling aside, and we find that it is used for instruction, scolding,
encouragement, upbraiding, and it's the context that indicates for which
reason the person was called aside. The translator that translates
παρακαλειν into English has a problem--English doesn't have the concept of
calling aside for all those purposes. If the translator merely translates
the action, that makes no sense in English. So he ends up translating the
function, the why the action was taken.
"If, on the other hand, the intent of handling the text is merely to read
the text with the intent as far as possible "to get inside the head" of an
ancient Greek, the reader will recognize that παρακαλειν does NOT mean to
instruct, to scold, to encourage, to upbraid, rather it's an action that is
used to facilitate all these contexts and listing the action is often the
shorthand of referring to the reason for the action.
How is this not the etymological fallacy?
jshepherd53 at gmail.com
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