[b-hebrew] Why tsere? (was ואילילה Micah 1:8)

Jerry Shepherd jshepherd53 at gmail.com
Tue Jul 23 11:05:38 EDT 2013

Hi Pere,

I'm not quite sure what your question is.  If you're asking why we have
this anomalous situation, the answer is that this is the regular
vocalization for 1-yod verbs in the hiphil imperfect.  But if you're asking
why this happens in the hiphil, i.e., what are the series of steps that
account for why this is the vocalization in the hiphil, then perhaps
someone else can provide that information.



Jerry Shepherd
Taylor Seminary
Edmonton, Alberta
jshepherd53 at gmail.com

On Tue, Jul 23, 2013 at 4:54 AM, Pere Porta <pporta7 at gmail.com> wrote:

> Dear listers,
> the word in Mic 1:8 we dealt with some days ago, has tsere under the aleph.
> Now,  some words are found in the biblical text having the same pattern
> (binyan, person, number...)...  And so,
> )$BYTH, ashbytah (Dt 32:26)
> W)BDYLH, w'abdylah (Ezr 8:24)
> W)BLYGH, w'ablygah (Job 9:27)
> All of these have PATAH under the aleph.
> My question is:
> is there any good reason for the tsere  -and not a patah--    under Tthe
> form in Mic 1:8?
> Pere Porta
> (Barcelona, Catalonia, Northeastern Spain)
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