[b-hebrew] Why tsere? (was ואילילה Micah 1:8)
pporta7 at gmail.com
Tue Jul 23 06:54:04 EDT 2013
the word in Mic 1:8 we dealt with some days ago, has tsere under the aleph.
Now, some words are found in the biblical text having the same pattern
(binyan, person, number...)... And so,
)$BYTH, ashbytah (Dt 32:26)
W)BDYLH, w'abdylah (Ezr 8:24)
W)BLYGH, w'ablygah (Job 9:27)
All of these have PATAH under the aleph.
My question is:
is there any good reason for the tsere -and not a patah-- under Tthe
form in Mic 1:8?
(Barcelona, Catalonia, Northeastern Spain)
2013/7/22 Will Parsons <wbparsons at alum.mit.edu>
> On Sun, 21 Jul 2013 17:25:09 -0400, Isaac Fried <if at math.bu.edu> wrote:
> > "People" did not write the HB. Spoken Hebrew has its purposes, and BH
> > has its purposes.
> > I doubt that King David mundanely spoke to his wives and children in
> > BH.
> Obviously, BH is a language made up just to write down the scriptures.
> Will Parsons
> b-hebrew mailing list
> b-hebrew at lists.ibiblio.org
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