[b-hebrew] Ex 6:6 hiphil imperative 'bring'
kwrandolph at gmail.com
Tue Jul 16 09:41:05 EDT 2013
On Tue, Jul 16, 2013 at 1:43 AM, Chavoux Luyt <chavoux at gmail.com> wrote:
> Hi Karl
> On 16 July 2013 05:43, <b-hebrew-request at lists.ibiblio.org> wrote:
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>> From: K Randolph <kwrandolph at gmail.com>
>> By the way, can you document any changes that happened to Biblical Hebrew
>> language during the 800 years from Moses to Nebuchadnezzar when it was a
>> natively spoken language?
> First off, it is known from surrounding ANE countries that scribes
> normally updated the language (grammar, spelling and sometimes vocabulary)
> when they copied a previous work. Understanding was more important than
> keeping archaisms. So it is reasonable that the same process happened in
> Biblical Hebrew.
Reasonable, but still speculation. Would the temple scribes have put up
with such? Was the careful copying an innovation during the DSS period, or
a continuation of a practice from before?
> I also think it would be good to compare the spelling used in the tunnel
> of Hezekiah to that used in our later copies of the Tanach. If I remember
> correctly, there is much less use of plene spelling (matres lectionis).
I have an electronic copy of the Siloam Inscription—except for one word,
where I think many scholars are wrong in saying “fire” should be “man”—the
rest of the “matres lectionis” uses are entirely consistent with
pre-Babylonian uses in Tanakh.
> I would assume that even though some archaisms survived in the older
> texts, most of the language would be updated as was normal at the time.
Israel, when it followed Tanakh, was different in other ways, why not this
> One glaring example of change is the use of the male הוא (hu) for females
> instead of היא (hi) found only in the Torah and in none of the later books.
I thought this pattern was more widespread than this.
There are stylistic differences that are noticeable, but what I’m looking
for are linguistic changes.
> Chavoux Luyt
> Thanks, Chavoux.
Karl W. Randolph.
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