[b-hebrew] Ex 6:6 hiphil imperative 'bring' (K Randolph)
kwrandolph at gmail.com
Mon Jul 15 20:54:36 EDT 2013
On Mon, Jul 15, 2013 at 10:09 AM, Jerry Shepherd <jshepherd53 at gmail.com>wrote:
> Jerry: "Indeed, this is one of the reasons why I think it is illegitimate
> to straitjacket the meaning of the biblical text into a preconceived
> "single unique meaning" lexeme theory that at the same both ignores sound
> linguistic theory and subjects the biblical text to one's own whims."
This is completely backwards—I don’t straitjacket the text, rather the text
leads to the understanding.
If one defines each word’s use by its immediate context, if taken to its
logical conclusion, results in linguistic chaos where meanings are subject
to one’s personal whims. There needs to be some discipline. What do you
suggest should be the discipline?
> Karl: "This sounds like a complete misreading and misstating of what I do
> and say. Whatever you mean by “single unique meaning”, it doesn’t sound at
> all what I say. In other words, you play Humpty Dumpty with my words, and
> make them say something other than what I intended. Evidence: you latch
> onto that phrase in isolation without considering the whole of what I have
> said on the subject."
> Karl (5/3/2013): "So when one looks at a snapshot of a language, i.e. the
> use of a language at one point in time, there are very few exceptions, even
> in modern languages, that each lexeme has one unique meaning."
OK, *you* define what *you* understand when you hear the phrase “one unique
I want to know, did I use terminology that confuses rather than elucidates?
Why is it that my definition of the terms, which I repeated several times,
seem not to resonate in you?
> Jerry Shepherd
> Taylor Seminary
> Edmonton, Alberta
> jshepherd53 at gmail.com
By the way, can you document any changes that happened to Biblical Hebrew
language during the 800 years from Moses to Nebuchadnezzar when it was a
natively spoken language?
Karl W. Randolph.
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