[b-hebrew] Ex 6:6 hiphil imperative 'bring'
dekruidnootjes at eircom.net
Tue Jul 9 07:22:16 EDT 2013
Well the Tav is there because it indicates the 2nd person plural. I
know that there is the הוציא and the הוצאתי. I am
not a grammarian, neither a student nor learned in cognate languages
or historical development. But the lexicon clearly says it is an
imperative and I can not see it any other way, it is impossible to be
an ordinary hiphil perfect.
By the way, indicative means indicating, indicative is a verbal
noun. I could have said: This indicates that this is an
imperative" But this sentence is long, so I wrote: "it is indicative
of an imperative".
On 9 Jul 2013, at 11:29, Petr Tomasek wrote:
On Tue, Jul 09, 2013 at 11:22:06AM +0100, Chris Watts wrote:
> Hallo Pere, well firstly I recognised that the heh holem vav is
> indicative of an imperative and the heh a hiphil, then the tsere
> under the tsadi instead of a hireq. I was surprised so I checked B.
> Davidsons's hebrew analytical lexicon and there is written this word
> idicating it as an imperative hiphil? Also I checked my personal
> grammar under the assumption that this verb would qualify as a Pe Vav/
> Pe Yod.
> Chris Watts
But how would you explain the presence of the -תי ending?
BTW. What do you mean by "indicative of an imperative"?
To me this sounds like an oxymoron.
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