[b-hebrew] Psalm 23

K Randolph kwrandolph at gmail.com
Mon Feb 18 19:17:06 EST 2013


Bryant:

On Fri, Feb 15, 2013 at 7:23 PM, Rev. Bryant J. Williams III <
bjwvmw at com-pair.net> wrote:

> **
> Dear List,
>
> I have been reviewing the Messianic Psalms 22, 23, 24 very recently. Since
> these three Psalms are a triad, it puzzles me that while Psalms 22 and 24
> prophecy the death and glory of the Messiah Psalm 23 is silent.
>
> I have several questions:
>
> 1.    How does Psalm 23 fit with the prophetic Messianic Pss. 22 & 24?
>

I didn’t know it is considered Messianic.

If I remember correctly, there are a few verses in the prophets that make
mention of God shepherding his people, e.g. Ezekiel 34:15, but I didn’t
bookmark those verses, and so don’t remember where they are found right off
hand. It is because of these verses among other reasons that I didn’t
consider Psalm 23 to be Messianic.

The New Testament parallel is John 10:1–18. But isn’t this a separate issue
(that I won’t comment on more)?

>
> 2.    Does "nephesh" in 23:3 (MT) mean "soul" or "life" or ?
>

It means “life” but a much broader meaning than in English in which “soul”
and “life force” are subsets of its meaning, not separate as in English.

>
> 3.    Does "YeShUBeB" (Polel Impf) mean "restore" as traditionally
> translated or is it closer t o the idea of "to turn, return?"
>

Interesting question.

There is a verb $BB found in Isaiah 58:12, Jeremiah 50:19, and Ezekiel
39:2. It seems to have the meaning of moving from one’s original place. In
the theological sense, to being apostate.

$WBBYM is used three times as an adjective, Jeremiah 3:14, 22, 50:6
referring to plural nouns. It looks as if this use is related to the above.
$WBBH thrice in Jeremiah 8:5, 31:22, 49:4.

Other uses of the quadriliteral $WBB are found in Isaiah 47:10, 57:17,
Ezekiel 38:8, 39:27. All of these uses seem to be connected with the idea
of being in motion from one’s place, even to wandering.

$WBB seems to be treated as a quadriliteral verb, as an infinitive Isaiah
49:5, Micah 2:4, as a participle Ezekiel 39:27, as a verb Psalm 60:1 (3),
Ezekiel 38:4. All these still connected to the meaning above.

Now we come to Psalm 23:3a, the last example, and …?? Looking even at the
verb in Psalm 23:3b there’s the action of motion, being led. Is the
traditional understanding wrong? (Should I stop thinking through my fingers
and keyboard?)

What do you-all think?

>
> 4.    How would David have understood them when he wrote them NOT how they
> have been understood by the Christian exegetical tradition?
>

Seeing as it can be read with a contemporary (to David) meaning, is there
any evidence that David considered it Messianic?

Could the Christian theological sense be connected to John 10:1–18, and not
original to the Hebrew?

>
> Thank you,
>
> Rev. Bryant J. Williams III
>

Karl W. Randolph.
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