[b-hebrew] Zech 9:10

Jerry Shepherd jshepherd53 at gmail.com
Wed Aug 14 17:49:58 EDT 2013

Hi Stewart,

As Ken has already indicated, the Masoretic accentuation does not support
the idea that  וּמָשְׁלוֹ֙is the object of  וְדִבֶּ֥ר .  It is better to
simply take this part of the verse as a verbless clause and supply a verb
of being.

For the second part of your question, it is unlikely that there is an
epexegetical relationship between the two phrases.  "From sea to sea"
probably refers to the Mediterranean and either of the two arms of the Red
Sea.  The "river," however, is the Euphrates.  I don't know if that body of
water is ever referred to as "sea" in the Hebrew Bible.



Jerry Shepherd
Taylor Seminary
Edmonton, Alberta
jshepherd53 at gmail.com

On Wed, Aug 14, 2013 at 2:17 PM, Stewart Felker <stewart.felker at gmail.com>wrote:

> וְדִבֶּר שָׁלֹום לַגֹּויִם וּמָשְׁלֹו מִיָּם עַד יָם וּמִנָּהָר עַד
> אַפְסֵי אָֽרֶץ
> I have two issues here. משלו here is to be understood as "his dominion" -
> the object of דבר, correct? So, "and he will proclaim peace to the nations
> and [proclaim] his ruling/dominion..." Most major translations seem to be
> obscure this, supplying that his dominion "will extend" or "will be" from
> sea to sea.
> Also, is it possible that the waw connecting מים עד ים with מנהר עד אפסי
> ארץ is epexegetical?
> Stewart Felker,
> University of Memphis
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