[b-hebrew] Noun accord. K. Randolph

K Randolph kwrandolph at gmail.com
Thu Nov 29 15:36:49 EST 2012


Good point.

The question is: when did Hebrew pronunciation change from native Hebrew to
bad Aramaic, i.e. Aramaic vowels and Aramaic consonantal pronunciation of
Hebrew writing? I think it started during the Babylonian Exile, and largely
reached completion before the LXX was written.

There are some very sparse clues that there was also a secondary change,
one that started in the South (Egypt) probably during the time the LXX was
translated, but did not reach all of Aramaic speaking Jews until centuries
later, hence Peter’s accent and some of the spellings retained in the
Byzantine transliterations in the New Testament.

Karl W. Randolph.

On Wed, Nov 28, 2012 at 4:46 PM, Will Parsons <wbparsons at alum.mit.edu>wrote:

> Hi Karl,
> On Wed, 28 Nov 2012 07:38:01 -0800, K Randolph <kwrandolph at gmail.com>
> wrote:
> >
> > Note: apparently the segolate form is late, possibly not earlier than
> > Mishnaic or even Masoretic Hebrew. Even Waltke & O’Conner mention that
> the
> > Amarna Letters, archaeologically dated to the Divided Kingdom era, give
> > clues that the language then spoken was apparently a CVCVCV form with no
> > consonantal clusters. I had earlier to my reading of Waltke & O’Conner
> come
> > to the tentative conclusion derived from reading the unpointed text that
> > such a form was possibly the case.
> I won't venture an opinion on what might have been the pronunciation
> in the Divided Kingdom era, but the segholate form apparently goes
> back to the time of the LXX translation, at any rate.  For example, in
> Gen 26.1, the name אבימלך is represented as Αβιμελεχ/Abimelech.
> --
> Will Parsons
> μη φαινεσθαι, αλλ' ειναι.
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