nebarry at verizon.net
Sun Nov 4 11:38:04 EST 2012
On 11/4/2012 10:33 AM, Mike Burke wrote:
> >>>>I think the answer to this is that Augustine is dealing
> specifically with a theological issue, not a lexical one. Have a look
> at the specific context of his statements:<<<<
> I read the context, and I understand he's dealing with a theological
> issue, but the quote seems to make much less sense if he mean "complete."
> I hated in them their iniquities, I loved Your creation. This it is to
> hate with a complete hatred, that neither on account of the vices thou
> hate the men, nor on account of the men love the vices.
> >>>>Now, I'm not going to comment on his solution, but simply observe
> that it does not mean imputing the later developed idea
> of "perfect" (i.e., morally without flaw) into the word, but that a
> "complete" hatred can be exercised as long as the object of that hatred
> is the proper object.<<<<
> But the object would seem to be "them."
> It doesn't make any sense to me (and I don't see how it could make any
> sense to Augustine or his readers) to suggest that a "complete" hatred
> of "them" was just a hatred of their vices, but it might make sense to
> suggest that a (morally) perfect hatred of "them" was a hatred of their
> Someone said TAKLIYT contains the idea of "goal, or purpose," did
> "perfectum" contain the same idea (and could that have implied moral
> perfection to Augustine)?
I have given what I think to be an adequate answer to your questions,
and have not intention of pursuing it further. Having seen some of your
posts on b-Greek, it seem clear to me that you have not studied any of
the languages about which you are asking questions in any meaningful
sense. I would suggest carefully listening to those who have.
N.E. Barry Hofstetter
Semper melius Latine sonat
The American Academy
The North American Reformed Seminary
Bible Translation Magazine
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