michaelgburk at yahoo.com
Sun Nov 4 00:23:22 EDT 2012
But where does the idea of perfection come in?
What confuses me is that the Latin (perfectum) seems to carry the idea of completion too, and yet Augustine's comments on this verse seem to take the word in more the sense that a modern speaker of English takes "perfect."
Here's what he wrote:
"What is, 'with a perfect hatred'? I hated in them their iniquities, I
loved Your creation. This it is to hate with a perfect hatred, that
neither on account of the vices thou hate the men, nor on account of the men love the vices."
Did he somehow read something alien to both the Hebrew word (תכלית TAKLIYT), and the Latin "perfectum" into this text?
From: Isaac Fried <if at math.bu.edu>
To: Mike Burke <michaelgburk at yahoo.com>
Cc: "b-hebrew at lists.ibiblio.org" <b-hebrew at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Saturday, November 3, 2012 7:28 PM
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Takliyth
Meseems that תכלית TAKLIYT = TA-KL-IYT is of the root כל כלה כלל KLL, 'encompass, include', with the initial personal pronoun TA = ATAH אתה and the trailing combined personal pronoun IYT, all for the thing itself. Hence, TAKLIYT signifies here 'total, full, complete, consummate, perfect, general, entire, whole, conclusive, inclusive, all-embracing, all-encompassing.
The root KLL is a variant of
גלל, הלל, חלל, כלל, קלל
GLL, HLL, XLL, KLL, QLL
In today's spoken Hebrew TAKLIYT came to mean 'goal, end, ultimate purpose'.
Isaac Fried, Boston University
On Nov 3, 2012, at 12:40 AM, Mike Burke wrote:
>What I'm interested in at the moment is the range of meaning of the word "Takliyth" (used in Psalm 139:22.)
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