nebarry at verizon.net
Sat Nov 3 09:47:23 EDT 2012
On 11/3/2012 12:40 AM, Mike Burke wrote:
> Hi all.
> My name is Mike Burke, and I'm interested in Biblical Hebrew.
> What I'm interested in at the moment is the range of meaning of the word
> "Takliyth" (used in Psalm 139:22.)
> In commenting on the verse, Augustineseems to have followed the Latin
> Vulgate, and says a "perfect" hatred would be to hate the vices ofthe
> men--neither excusing the vices because of the men, or hating the men
> because of the vices.
> It makes for a very interesting interpretation, but is "perfection" part
> of the meaning of the Hebrew word used in the text?
> The NIV has "I have nothing but hatred for them."
> Was Augustine entirely off the mark here?
> Did the Latin Vulgate get it wrong?
Greetings, Mike. The meaning of the Hebrew is much closer to "end,
completion" than what we colloquially mean in modern English by
"perfect." The Latin perfectum, originally the perfect passive
participial form of perficio (complete), bears this sense in Latin as
well (beware of reading the modern English sense of "perfect" back into
it). The LXX translates with the adverbial TELEION, bearing the same sense.
N.E. Barry Hofstetter
Semper melius Latine sonat
The American Academy
The North American Reformed Seminary
Bible Translation Magazine
More information about the b-hebrew