George.Athas at moore.edu.au
Sat Nov 3 05:21:28 EDT 2012
Welcome to B-Hebrew, Mike. Please remember to sign all your posts with your full name and, if possible, give an indication of your location or institutional affiliation. Cheers!
Dean of Research,
Moore Theological College (moore.edu.au)
From: Mike Burke <michaelgburk at yahoo.com<mailto:michaelgburk at yahoo.com>>
Reply-To: Mike Burke <michaelgburk at yahoo.com<mailto:michaelgburk at yahoo.com>>
Date: Saturday, 3 November 2012 3:40 PM
To: B-Hebrew <b-hebrew at lists.ibiblio.org<mailto:b-hebrew at lists.ibiblio.org>>
Subject: [b-hebrew] Takliyth
My name is Mike Burke, and I'm interested in Biblical Hebrew.
What I'm interested in at the moment is the range of meaning of the word "Takliyth" (used inPsalm 139:22.)
In commenting on the verse, Augustine seems to have followed the Latin Vulgate, and says a "perfect" hatred would be to hate the vices ofthe men--neither excusing the vices because of the men, or hating the men because of the vices.
It makes for a very interesting interpretation, but is "perfection" part of the meaning of the Hebrew word used in the text?
The NIV has "I have nothing but hatred for them."
Was Augustine entirely off the mark here?
Did the Latin Vulgate get it wrong?
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