pporta7 at gmail.com
Sat Nov 3 03:09:11 EDT 2012
Welcome, Mike! Where are you posting from?
Well, I don't know what Augustine says. Now, I think the Vulgate has
As regards our word "takliyth" (as you're writing it) (*), this is an
uncommon noun pattern built up on several root types, mainly -methinks-
lamed-heh and ayin-yod.
In modern Hebrew we find Tagliyt, *discovering* (not in the Bible), from
verb galah (1S 4:21), *uncover*, and tashtiyt, *base, foundation* (not in
the Bible), from verb (la)shyt, *put, set* (Jb 30:1).
Maybe this helps.
(*) Are you aware of the transcription guidelines of Hebrew letters we use
in this forum?
If not, ask the moderators, please.
(Barcelona, Catalonia, Northeastern Spain)
2012/11/3 Mike Burke <michaelgburk at yahoo.com>
> Hi all.
> My name is Mike Burke, and I'm interested in Biblical Hebrew.
> What I'm interested in at the moment is the range of meaning of the word "Takliyth"
> (used in Psalm 139:22.)
> In commenting on the verse, Augustine seems to have followed the Latin
> Vulgate, and says a "perfect" hatred would be to hate the vices of the men--neither
> excusing the vices because of the men, or hating the men because of the
> It makes for a very interesting interpretation, but is "perfection" part
> of the meaning of the Hebrew word used in the text?
> The NIV has "I have nothing but hatred for them."
> Was Augustine entirely off the mark here?
> Did the Latin Vulgate get it wrong?
> Please reply.
> b-hebrew mailing list
> b-hebrew at lists.ibiblio.org
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