[b-hebrew] Different binyan, same meaning?

K Randolph kwrandolph at gmail.com
Mon Jul 9 18:40:11 EDT 2012


On Thu, Jul 5, 2012 at 11:22 AM, Pere Porta <pporta7 at gmail.com> wrote:

> So, and putting aside this verse (Ecc 9:12), is it right to state that in
> a general way there is NO difference between the Qal passive Participle and
> the Niph'al Participle concerning their meanings?
> Pere Porta
> No, this is not “NO difference”, rather that there is an overlap of
meaning where either can be used. David Kolinsky makes a good point as to
the differences, yet even there the overlap of action can be seen. In
poetic use, either can be used to fit the meter of the song.

Karl W. Randolph.

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