kwrandolph at gmail.com
Mon Dec 17 11:54:34 EST 2012
On Mon, Dec 17, 2012 at 5:47 AM, Donald Vance <donaldrvance at mac.com> wrote:
> Karl's non-answer aside,
My non-answer? Are not leading questions a more effective way to
communicate and debate than simple statements?
> we would, of course, assign a past time sphere, to use the question's
> terminology, and we would do so because the wayyiqtol pattern preserves or
> retains an old perfective form. The introduction to Leviticus makes this
What old perfective form? Where does that come from? If it’s from the
mythological proto-Semitic, why should we accept it as evidence?
Or is the Wayyiqtol introduction a sign that the following is a narrative?
Did you look at the introductions to all the narrative books? Didn’t you
notice that except for Genesis and 1 Chronicles, both which start at the
very beginning, all but a couple of the narratives, including a couple of
the prophets who told their stories as narratives (Jonah, Ezekiel), start
with Wayyiqtols? So rather than being a sign of the perfective, wouldn’t
this be merely a sign of narrative, continuation?
> Sent from my iPad
> Donald R. Vance
> dvance at oru.edu
> donaldrvance at mac.com
Going back to the question that started this thread, don’t the number of
cases where the Wayyiqtol is found in non-past contexts make it impossible
to say whether or not a single Wayyiqtol standing alone refers to a past
event apart from a context that indicates past tense?
Karl W. Randolph.
> On Dec 13, 2012, at 11:16 AM, "Dr. Frank Matheus" <post at matheus.de> wrote:
> Dear list, ****
> ** **
> if we perceived a text comprising only of one word, e.g. וַיֹּ֙אמֶר , to
> which time sphere would we sort the proposition, and why would we do so? *
> ** **
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