[b-hebrew] Tense

Jerry Shepherd jshepherd53 at gmail.com
Thu Dec 13 14:11:13 EST 2012


Hi Karl,

Again, as I said in an earlier post, no one ever sat down and determined
that in the Hebrew language, a wc+imperfect would equal past tense.  I
would, however, argue that, with usage, the past tense became its primary
function.

If I were to give my Hebrew students a test in which I simply listed 100
wc+imperfects, chosen randomly fronm the Hebrew Bible, and asked the
students to translate them into English, and give them a past, present, or
future time reference, if a student translated all of them using the past
tense, then according to Rolf's statistics given in an earlier post, the
student would score 93.1 on the exam.  I think the student would be pretty
happy with that.

Blessings,

Jerry

Jerry Shepherd
Taylor Seminary
Edmonton, Alberta
jshepherd53 at gmail.com

On Thu, Dec 13, 2012 at 11:26 AM, K Randolph <kwrandolph at gmail.com> wrote:

> Frank:
>
> On Thu, Dec 13, 2012 at 9:16 AM, Dr. Frank Matheus <post at matheus.de>wrote:
>
>> Dear list, ****
>>
>> ** **
>>
>> if we perceived a text comprising only of one word, e.g. וַיֹּ֙אמֶר , to
>> which time sphere would we sort the proposition, and why would we do so?
>>
>
> We would not know because this is not a grammaticalization for any time
> sphere. It could be present, it could be future, without further context,
> there’s no way to tell.
>
>>  ****
>>
>> ** **
>>
>> Frank****
>>
>>
>> Karl W. Randolph.
>
>
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>


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