[b-hebrew] verbs: do they exist?
Nir cohen - Prof. Mat.
nir at ccet.ufrn.br
Fri Dec 7 23:52:22 EST 2012
frankly, i am sick and tired of having to deal with your old routine
each and every time the four-letter word is mentioned on b-hebrew
(the word "verb").
the truth which you ignore is that MANY languages, besides hebrew, denote
the future by a fore-unit, the past by an aft-unit, and the present
by the absence of both. just WHAT unit they choose as fore and aft,
varies according to the language. this may (or may not) depict a
"primitive sense of direction" in language, or a "primordial" form
of tense. namely, your back and forth arrows.
these include, needless to say, most semitic languages, old and new,
but also most older (and many modern) indo-european languages and
probably additional language families. even in MODERN english, the
main simple tenses (used in the germanic languages before they were modified
by a vulgar latin modal component) are of this type:
i SHALL-study (fore unit), i studi-ED (aft unit), i study (no-unit).
(you should study linguistics.)
so, hebrew has verbs after all - what a relief. can we PLEASE stop
eating bananas now and go back to more mundane b-hebrew topics?
>> By a certain agreement, and by a certain agreement only, an aft personal
pronoun is used to indicate past action, as in say $ALAXTA = $ALAX-TA, 'you
have sent', while a fore personal pronoun is used to indicate future action,
as in TI$LAX = TI-$LAX, 'you will send'.
>> An English equivalent system would have been: banana eat-I for past action,
and banana I-eat for future action.
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