[b-hebrew] Why not ")ULBAN"?

K Randolph kwrandolph at gmail.com
Tue Apr 19 18:54:52 EDT 2011


This was poetry, meant to be sung. This looks like the addition of a sound
to make the word tempo fit the music. But that works only if you accept that
Biblical Hebrew was a CV language.

Karl W. Randolph.

On Tue, Apr 19, 2011 at 12:28 AM, Pere Porta <pporta7 at gmail.com> wrote:

> At considering Ps 51:9 I wonder about the last word in the verse.
> )LBYN, a typical Hiph'il, imperfect, first person singular: *I will cause
> to
> be white* (in a literal translation)
> Now, the real sense is: I will be caused to be/become white.
> To my eyes it would seem more logical here the use of the Hoph'al: )ULBAN.
> Why Hiph'il and not Huph'al?
> Of course, I'm not intending to change the text; I just look for a more or
> less convincing  explanation.
> --
> Pere Porta
> (Barcelona, Catalonia, Spain)

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