[b-hebrew] Why not ")ULBAN"?
pporta7 at gmail.com
Tue Apr 19 03:28:42 EDT 2011
At considering Ps 51:9 I wonder about the last word in the verse.
)LBYN, a typical Hiph'il, imperfect, first person singular: *I will cause to
be white* (in a literal translation)
Now, the real sense is: I will be caused to be/become white.
And so, Vulgate has "dealbabor" (a passive) and LXX has "leukanthésomai" (a
To my eyes it would seem more logical here the use of the Hoph'al: )ULBAN.
Why Hiph'il and not Huph'al?
Of course, I'm not intending to change the text; I just look for a more or
less convincing explanation.
(Barcelona, Catalonia, Spain)
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