[b-hebrew] Someone knows?
if at math.bu.edu
Sat Apr 16 21:53:35 EDT 2011
I would say HA-KTIYB XASAR HA-NIYQUD V-XASAR HADIGU$, since the DIYGU
$ is, in my opinion, independent of the NIYKUD.
I think that the custom today is to routinely insert a yod after an
unmarked xireq (leading to such disagreeable "official" spellings as
אימא 'mother'), albeit with some exceptions. See here for the
In fact, here:
the unpunctuated word HAMITEM of Nu. 17:6 is written with a yod,
In Nu. 17:6 HAMITEM has a (in my opinion, pre-NIYQUD) dagesh in the
letter T to recall the xireq under the letter M, suggesting, by the
antiquity of the dagesh, that the word was "always" lacking a yod.
If I were younger I would start a campaign for the restoration of the
dgeshim system in the KTIYB XASAR HA-NIYQUD, as it was in ancient
times, before the invention of the NIYQUD, thus: אמּא .
In 1Sa 2:25 LAHAMIYTAM lacks a dagesh in the T since the word is
written in full with a yod after the xireq. The yod hints to the
xireq, making a further dagesh hinter unnecessary, suggesting, by the
antiquity of the dagesh, that the word was "always" written with a yod.
Isaac Fried, Boston University
On Apr 16, 2011, at 12:10 AM, Pere Porta wrote:
> We have in Nm 17:6 the verbal form HAMIT.EM, you killed.
> If we were to write this word in today Israeli script (the
> pointless one,
> hasar haniqud), must we include a YUD between M and T?
> I mean: should the written word take the form of the last word in
> 1Sa 2:25
> (of course, without points and without the prefixed lamed)?
> Kind regards from
> Pere Porta
> (Barcelona, Catalonia, Spain)
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> Pere Porta
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