[b-hebrew] Does he eat or is he eaten?
pporta7 at gmail.com
Wed Apr 13 01:55:59 EDT 2011
Dear b-hebrew listers,
I've a trouble with the Hiph'il verbs when they take a suffixed pronoun.
Let us consider YAXALYPEN.W (Lv 27:10).
It seems clear that this means (in a literal translation):
He will cause him to pass on ------ "him" is here the subject of the verb
In Lv 27:8 we have YA(ARYKEN.W. It seems clear that this means (in a literal
translation): He (the priest) will cause to arrange him ------ "him" is here
the object of the verb "arrange".
I am wondering: the pronoun suffixed to the Hiph'il:
1. always plays the part of the subject of the verb to which it is suffixed?
2. always plays the part of the object of the verb to which it is suffixed?
3. sometimes it plays the part of the subject and sometimes it plays the
part of the object?
4. there are no strict rules: depending on context, on the verb kind... it
plays the part of the subject or the part of the object of the verb to which
it has been added as a suffix?
I feel the need to cast a sure light hereon because, for instance, the
following sentence a. is not exactly the same thing as b.
a. He (the father) caused him (his child) to eat (an apple)
b. He (the father) caused (someone) to eat him (the father's child)
What do you say?
Kind regards from
(Barcelona, Catalonia, Spain)
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