[b-hebrew] Initial Consonant Clusters in Biblical Hebrew

K Randolph kwrandolph at gmail.com
Tue Jun 15 11:16:47 EDT 2010


On Tue, Jun 15, 2010 at 6:53 AM, <JimStinehart at aol.com> wrote:

> Yitzhak Sapir:
> You just made my point.  Outside of the Bible, there’s  n-o-t-h-i-n-g  in
> the secular history of the ancient world that documents use of the word
> Kasdim, or anything similar to Kasdim, to refer to the Kaldu/Chaldeans.
>  That’s
> my point exactly.  If people learn nothing else from this thread, this
> thread
> will have done invaluable service.
> Isn’t it a bit scary that scholars consistently “forget” to mention that
> there is no inscription from the ancient world [outside of the Bible] that
> refers to the Chaldeans as Kasdim?

In Italian they refer to a people known as “Tedesco” which is mentioned by
no other language or country. Isn’t it scary that no other language or
people knows about this people? There is n-o-t-h-i-n-g in other Romance
languages (French, Spanish, Romanian, etc.) that even remotely resembles
this name.

Now wouldn’t it be a great service to show how the Scandinavians learned
their word “Tysk” from the Italians?

To the best of my knowledge, no scholar has ever attempted a serious
comparison of Tedesco with Tysk as mentioned here. Isn’t that a bit scary?

If anyone mentioned the theory as proposed in the above three paragraphs, he
would be the laughing stock of the scholarly world, especially were he to
word it in the terms used above. At least in this example, the Scandinavians
and Italians refer to the same people.

Now we come to your theory…

> 3.  To the best of my knowledge, no scholar has ever attempted a serious
> comparison of K$DYM at Genesis 11: 28, 31 to Karaduniash [as I set forth on
> this thread].  Isn’t that a bit scary?
> Jim Stinehart
> Evanston, Illinois

Karl W. Randolph.

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