[b-hebrew] Fact of language?

Pere Porta pporta7 at gmail.com
Fri Jun 4 01:49:58 EDT 2010

> [KR]
> I see we have very different concepts of “inner structure”. For me, they
> refer to the actions of the language under the surface, not readily
> observable. Apparently for you, if I understand you correctly, it refers to
> the surface appearances.
> [PP]

Yes, you may be right, Karl.
But you should, methinks, give one or two examples, samples, of some of the
assertions you make.

> For a case, you write:
> >...so I merely misunderstood the dictionaries, but I often did not >
> recognize the patterns found in Biblical Hebrew.
> Can you give us an example or two of this so that we can verify and better
> understand what you mean?



> I think that if one of the pre-Babylonian Exile prophets were to return to
> modern day Jerusalem, that he would not understand the language spoken,
> because of the many differences.
> [PP]

Yes, I think you're right here. Even if the language structure is the
same.... the gap of hundreds of years... causes many differences ... so that
neither the prophet would understand modern speakers (people speaking) nor
these would understand the prophet's speech...

I wonder whether modern Englismen would understand Shakespeare if he were to
return to London and live there some months... and whether Shakespeare would
understand modern Englishspeakers...

> Pere Porta
> (Barcelona, Catalonia, Spain)

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Pere Porta
"Ei nekrói ouk eguéirontai, fágomen kai píomen áurion gar apothnéskomen"
(1Cor 15:32)

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